b) Where it is not clear who was to blame in a bike-car (or ped-car) collision, the motorist will be liable financially for any damages or injuries. Thus the injured parties can claim off the driver's 3rd party cover unless the InsCo can PROVE fault.
Does that answer your question?
Give or take that it's the motorist's
insurance, not the motorist, yes thank you, it answers the question - and confirms that I don't like the idea, though it's convenient for me as a cyclist. If the driver wasn't at fault then why should his/her insurance pay up? It is after all
his/her insurance, it represents
him/her, would be paying out on behalf of
him/her. I'm insured third-party in case I do something stupid - if I haven't done anything stupid I shouldn't have to claim.
There seems to be an underlying notion that because the insurance company pays out,
nobody pays out, as if an insurance company weren't made up of people. By the way don't confuse this bit with sympathy for insurance companies - it's the just that the cost comes from somewhere, ultimately motorists - yes I realize we all love that, but there are enough cases where it
is their fault, I don't see why pin it on them when it isn't. I'd find the argument more convincing if you just admitted it's not fair but what the hell's fair in life anyway.
we're effectively talking about minor, low-damage accidents here. Buckled wheel, torn jacket and new helmet territory.
Are we? So in a case of a serious accident where blame couldn't be established, the cyclist's mangled leg, brain damage, loss of livelihood and years of therapy wouldn't be covered? Would the small print be specific that this rule would only cover "minor, low-damage accidents here. Buckled wheel, torn jacket and new helmet", or would it be a financial limit of "a couple of hundred quid at most"? Not that it makes any difference, the principle is the same, I just quibbled that cos it seemed a strange detail.
What do you think is reasonable, and how do you think it should be enforced?
I don't necessarily have to have a reasonable alternative to justify not finding this one reasonable! How is a crash between two cars currently treated if no blame can be established? If blame can't be established then surely liability can't be established? If someone gets injured by falling off a cliff and there's no liability due to factors such as lack of danger signs, what happens there and how is it enforced? If a motorist is not to blame for a prang, they deal with their costs and I deal with mine.
Maybe if those costs are disproportionately different there could be a rule about how to split them, but then we get back towards the "one-size-fits-all" style - though not as unfair as simply always pinning it all on one party rather than the other according to means of transport. Also, there's the point that one chooses one's mode of transport - I wouldn't like to be more liable just because the guy I prang chooses to drive around in a priceless old museum piece so halving the costs puts me into six-figure debt even though I only bent a pedal and scraped a shin.
As I've explained above, I suspect that the money won't have to come from anywhere, as there's a very good chance that costs would reduce.
My arithmetic may be struggling, but for the money "not to have to come from anywhere", the costs would have to reduce to
zero. If your point is that insurance companies will see that they will probably pay less this way than they currently do in legal wrangles then perhaps purely pragmatically they will accept the idea and the argument will be academic.
It's the same as being held up for a few seconds by cyclists. It makes them froth at the mouth. Held up for hours by other cars is ok though. Cyclists aren't in the same club.
I agree...
So being penalised for hitting another car is fine but not fine if you hit a cyclist.
if you're driving and hit another car and it's not your fault but it can't be established that it's theirs either, does your insurance still pay for their damage? If so then it would be fair for it to be the same for hitting a cyclist or pedestrian.
one of the ideas behind this rule - to try and make drivers a bit more cautious around cyclists?
Isn't it about drivers that are already being cautious around cyclists but a prang still occurs? There's no blame, but it's being proposed that there would still be liability... if I've understood it right (unlikely!)
I think the feeling of unfairness it will provoke isn't worth the small benefit.
- that's kind of along the lines I'm thinking. THOUGH - many motorists have a permanent feeling of unfairness anyway, so perhaps that's not too much of a factor - they'll be pissed off
whatever happens!